
Imagine that you are travelling overseas, and you see a product on sale for a much lower price than in your home country. It is a genuine article – not a cheap knock-off – but the market in the country you are visiting simply will not bear the same cost as in your affluent home nation. The manufacturer can maintain this price disparity because the product is patented in every country in which it is sold.
So, if you buy the lower-priced product, should you be allowed legally to take it home, or should the manufacturer be able to use its patent rights in your home country to block you from bringing it in, or to require you to pay an additional royalty for the privilege of doing so? Probably you would feel that, having bought the product legally, you should be entitled to do whatever you wish with it, and that the manufacturer should have no further say in the matter.
Now imagine that you are not just a consumer, but that you own a retail store. You realise that you could buy 1000 of the product at the lower price, import it back into your home country, and then sell it at a profit of $100 per unit while still undercutting the recommended retail price of the same product being sold into your local market by the manufacturer. Should the manufacturer be able to use its patent rights to prevent you from engaging in this sharp business practice, or are you merely using your initiative to legitimately enhance competition back home?
Finally, suppose that the product in question is a drug used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS, which is a significant public health issue in poorer regions of the country in which you are travelling. Do you think that makes any difference?
The above scenarios all address the issue of international patent exhaustion, i.e. whether or not the sale of a product patented in one country automatically nullifies (i.e. ‘exhausts’) the patentee’s rights in all other countries in which it holds equivalent patents. Unless you are already familiar with this area of the law, you might be surprised to learn that the answer is generally ‘no’. A patent-owner can, in principle, enforce its rights – via an injunction, or requirement to pay a royalty – every time one of its products is transferred to a new jurisdiction in which it holds a relevant patent. This is different from the ‘rule’ that applies within a single jurisdiction, where the first sale of a product generally relieves the patentee of further rights.
Should there be a similar ‘rule’ of international exhaustion? I think not – or, at least, not
yet. But it is a question that is currently up for consideration by a US appeals court.